why does god refer to himself in the plural in genesis 1:26 and 3:22?
Published 4 years ago • 18K plays • Length 2:42Download video MP4
Download video MP3
Similar videos
-
5:28
what does it mean when god said, “let us make man in our image” in genesis 1:26? | gotquestions.org
-
3:21
how could there be light on the 1st day of creation if the sun was not created until the 4th day?
-
4:26
why are there two different creation accounts in genesis chapters 1-2? | gotquestions.org
-
19:57
genesis 1:26 - did god speak of himself in the plural? of course not.
-
6:12
genesis 1:26 god creates man on day 6. genesis 2:7 god creates man on day 7. why the difference?
-
15:35
the mystery of genesis 1 & 2 by apostle joshua selman
-
19:06
13 things most beginners miss in the first five verses of the bible: genesis 1:1-5
-
46:40
how old is the earth & cosmos? is there a gap in genesis 1:1 & 1:2 where an ancient earth can fit?
-
8:31
does genesis 1:26 refer to the trinity? | episode 1
-
2:26
why is elohim (gods) used in genesis 1:1 and genesis 1:26?
-
8:31
why are there two creation accounts in the bible? | genesis 1 and 2 | bible study
-
2:29
who is the “us” in genesis 1:26?
-
4:01
what does it mean to be made in god's image? genesis 1:26
-
7:50
a summary of the book of genesis | gotquestions.org
-
1:00
two creation stories in genesis?
-
33:52
if god (elohim) is the father, then who was god speaking to in genesis 1:26 & 3:22? "let us make"
-
5:46
“let us make man in our image… who is god talking with in genesis 1:26?”
-
0:57
why does genesis 1:26 say “let us make…”?
-
0:58
world's scariest bible verse ⚠️
-
3:13
who is the "us" in genesis 1:26 // trinity deception
-
0:58
what does "formless and void" mean in genesis 1?
-
3:48
creation (genesis 1-2)